MDCAT Scholarship Test

Which of the following statements best describes a virus?
A) It is a cellular organism with both DNA and RNA
B) It is an acellular entity containing either DNA or RNA
C) It is a unicellular prokaryote
D) It is a eukaryotic parasite

The causative agent of AIDS is:
A) HIV, a retrovirus containing RNA
B) HIV, a DNA virus
C) HPV, a retrovirus
D) HSV, a DNA virus

During cellular respiration, fats are first converted into:
A) Glucose
B) Amino acids
C) Glycerol and fatty acids
D) Acetyl CoA

Which of the following biological molecules contains peptide bonds?
A) Lipids
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Nucleic acids

Water’s high specific heat capacity helps living organisms by:
A) Reducing oxygen levels
B) Preventing rapid temperature changes
C) Increasing metabolic rate
D) Enhancing protein synthesis

Cellulose differs from starch because:
A) Cellulose is branched while starch is linear
B) Cellulose is made of α-glucose, starch of β-glucose
C) Cellulose is made of β-glucose, starch of α-glucose
D) Both are made of fructose

The molecule responsible for genetic inheritance is:
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Protein
D) Lipid

Which of the following is a conjugated molecule?
A) Glucose
B) Glycolipid
C) Glycerol
D) Triglyceride

The scientist(s) who proposed the double-helix model of DNA were:
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Watson and Crick
C) Avery and McLeod
D) Franklin and Chargaff

A gene is best defined as:
A) A segment of tRNA
B) A unit of protein synthesis
C) A sequence of DNA that codes for a polypeptide
D) A chromosomal mutation

Which organelle is responsible for energy production?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Endoplasmic reticulum

The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is:
A) Presence of ribosomes
B) Absence of DNA in prokaryotes
C) Presence of nucleus in eukaryotes
D) Larger size of prokaryotes

Chromosomes are composed of:
A) RNA and lipids
B) DNA and proteins
C) Lipids and carbohydrates
D) RNA and polysaccharides

Receptors act as:
A) Conductors of heat
B) Transducers converting stimuli into nerve impulses
C) Hormone secretors
D) Muscle fibers

The junction between two neurons is called:
A) Synapse
B) Axon hillock
C) Dendrite
D) Node of Ranvier

Reflex actions are controlled by:
A) Brain stem
B) Spinal cord
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla

The cerebellum is mainly responsible for:
A) Memory
B) Emotion
C) Balance and coordination
D) Breathing

Enzymes are mainly composed of:
A) Lipids
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Minerals

The substrate binds to the enzyme at the:
A) Active site
B) Allosteric site
C) Inhibitor site
D) Coenzyme

The optimum temperature for most human enzymes is:
A) 25°C
B) 30°C
C) 37°C
D) 45°C

Enzyme inhibitors that compete with the substrate for the active site are called:
A) Non-competitive inhibitors
B) Competitive inhibitors
C) Allosteric enzymes
D) Coenzymes

The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by:
A) Darwin
B) Lamarck
C) Wallace
D) Mendel

The main concept behind Darwin’s theory is:
A) Use and disuse
B) Natural selection
C) Inheritance of acquired traits
D) Catastrophism

The male reproductive organ responsible for sperm production is:
A) Epididymis
B) Testis
C) Prostate gland
D) Vas deferens

The hormone that triggers ovulation is:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
D) FSH

Syphilis is caused by:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) HIV
D) Hepatitis virus

The functional unit of a muscle fiber is called:
A) Myofibril
B) Sarcomere
C) Sarcoplasm
D) Myosin

Smooth muscles are:
A) Voluntary and striated
B) Involuntary and non-striated
C) Voluntary and non-striated
D) Involuntary and striated

Arthritis refers to:
A) Bone fracture
B) Joint inflammation
C) Muscle tear
D) Ligament sprain

Mendel’s law of segregation states that:
A) Two alleles separate during gamete formation
B) Alleles blend together
C) Dominant allele suppresses recessive always
D) Genes are linked on the same chromosome

Crossing over occurs during:
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis I
C) Meiosis II
D) Fertilization

Hemophilia is caused by:
A) Autosomal dominant mutation
B) X-linked recessive gene
C) Y-linked mutation
D) Environmental factor

The human heart consists of:
A) 2 chambers
B) 3 chambers
C) 4 chambers
D) 5 chambers

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Pulmonary vein
C) Aorta
D) Vena cava

The cardiac cycle begins with:
A) Ventricular contraction
B) Atrial contraction
C) Ventricular relaxation
D) Valve closure

Lymph nodes are primarily involved in:
A) Oxygen transport
B) Hormone secretion
C) Immune response
D) Nutrient absorption

Antibodies are produced by:
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) B-lymphocytes
D) T-helper cells

The main function of alveoli in lungs is:
A) Produce surfactant
B) Gas exchange
C) Filtration of air
D) Transport mucus

Smoking mainly damages which part of the respiratory system?
A) Alveoli and bronchioles
B) Trachea only
C) Pharynx only
D) Nasal cavity

Bile is produced by:
A) Stomach
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Gallbladder

The enzyme pepsin works best in:
A) Acidic medium
B) Neutral medium
C) Basic medium
D) Low temperature

Glomerular filtration occurs in:
A) Loop of Henle
B) Bowman’s capsule
C) Collecting duct
D) Ureter

The process of reabsorption mainly occurs in:
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Loop of Henle
D) Collecting duct

Kidney stones are primarily composed of:
A) Urea
B) Calcium oxalate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Potassium nitrate

Thermoregulation is controlled by which brain part?
A) Cerebrum
B) Hypothalamus
C) Medulla
D) Cerebellum

The excretory product in humans is mainly:
A) Ammonia
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Creatinine

The capillary bed responsible for filtration in kidney is:
A) Peritubular capillaries
B) Vasa recta
C) Glomerulus
D) Bowman’s capsule

Which process maintains water and salt balance?
A) Osmoregulation
B) Photosynthesis
C) Homeostasis
D) Glycolysis

Which technique uses monoclonal antibodies in disease diagnosis?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Immunoassay
C) Electrophoresis
D) Fermentation

Biotechnology helps in vaccine production by:
A) DNA replication
B) Recombinant DNA technology
C) Natural mutation
D) Cloning animals

The biomolecule which acts as a major component of plasma membrane is:
A) Protein only
B) Phospholipid
C) Glycogen
D) Cellulose

Which of the following is not a property of water important for life?
A) High specific heat
B) Low surface tension
C) Universal solvent property
D) High cohesion

DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?
A) G1 phase
B) G2 phase
C) S phase
D) M phase

The main function of Golgi apparatus is:
A) Protein synthesis
B) Packaging and secretion
C) Energy production
D) Lipid breakdown

Which structure regulates movement of materials between nucleus and cytoplasm?
A) Nucleolus
B) Nuclear pores
C) Ribosomes
D) Lysosomes

Which of the following best explains the function of mitochondria?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Protein synthesis
C) ATP generation
D) Lipid formation

The part of the brain that controls heartbeat and breathing is:
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Hypothalamus
D) Pons

Which statement about enzymes is true?
A) They are consumed in reactions
B) They increase activation energy
C) They act as biological catalysts
D) They function only at high pH

Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?
A) pH
B) Temperature
C) Substrate concentration
D) Light intensity

Which of the following supports the idea of “survival of the fittest”?
A) Lamarckism
B) Darwinism
C) Spontaneous generation
D) Fixism

The menstrual cycle is regulated mainly by:
A) LH, FSH, Estrogen, and Progesterone
B) Testosterone only
C) Insulin and Glucagon
D) Oxytocin only

The human skeleton provides all except:
A) Protection
B) Support
C) Blood cell production
D) Protein digestion

Which muscle type is multinucleated and voluntary?
A) Smooth
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
D) Visceral

During muscle contraction, which filament slides over the other?
A) Myosin over actin
B) Actin over myosin
C) Troponin over actin
D) Tropomyosin over myosin

The fluid inside joint cavities that reduces friction is:
A) Plasma
B) Synovial fluid
C) Lymph
D) Mucus

Incomplete dominance is when:
A) Both alleles express fully
B) One allele is completely dominant
C) Hybrid shows an intermediate phenotype
D) Traits are sex-linked

The universal donor blood group is:
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O

Capillaries function to:
A) Pump blood
B) Exchange gases and nutrients
C) Transport lymph
D) Store blood

Which organ acts as a filter for foreign particles in the lymphatic system?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas

Immunity acquired after infection is:
A) Natural active immunity
B) Natural passive immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Artificial passive immunity

The exchange of gases between blood and lungs occurs by:
A) Active transport
B) Osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Filtration

The pancreas secretes which digestive enzymes?
A) Pepsin and rennin
B) Trypsin, amylase, and lipase
C) Maltase and lactase
D) Bile salts

The nephron is located in which organ?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Lungs
D) Spleen

Urea is formed in which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Pancreas

The hormone that increases water reabsorption in kidneys is:
A) Insulin
B) ADH
C) Aldosterone
D) Thyroxine

High body temperature is corrected by:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Sweating and vasodilation
C) Shivering
D) Increased metabolism

The most toxic nitrogenous waste is:
A) Urea
B) Uric acid
C) Ammonia
D) Creatinine

Recombinant DNA technology involves:
A) Combining DNA from different sources
B) Mutating DNA naturally
C) Removing RNA
D) Cloning cells only

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by fusion of:
A) Red blood cells and macrophages
B) Lymphocytes and myeloma cells
C) Neurons and glial cells
D) Platelets and leukocytes

Insulin produced by recombinant bacteria is called:
A) Human insulin
B) Synthetic insulin
C) Humulin
D) Biolin

The main goal of biotechnology in healthcare is to:
A) Produce crops
B) Create vaccines and drugs
C) Enhance pollution
D) Stop evolution

One mole of any substance contains the same number of particles as:
A) 1 gram of hydrogen
B) 12 grams of carbon-12
C) 16 grams of oxygen
D) 1 liter of nitrogen gas

The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is the one which:
A) Has the largest number of moles
B) Determines the amount of product formed
C) Reacts last
D) Is always in excess

If the actual yield is 15 g and theoretical yield is 20 g, the percentage yield is:
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 75%
D) 80%

The proton was discovered by:
A) J.J. Thomson
B) Rutherford
C) Goldstein
D) Chadwick

A photon is defined as:
A) A particle of matter
B) A packet of electromagnetic energy
C) A unit of charge
D) A magnetic field line

The orbital having spherical shape is:
A) s-orbital
B) p-orbital
C) d-orbital
D) f-orbital

Which of the following is a violation of Pauli Exclusion Principle?
A) Two electrons in an atom have same spin and same quantum numbers
B) Each electron has opposite spin
C) Electrons fill lower energy first
D) Orbitals have maximum of two electrons

The standard temperature and pressure (STP) are:
A) 0°C and 1 atm
B) 25°C and 1 atm
C) 273 K and 1 Pa
D) 100°C and 1 atm

According to Boyle’s Law, at constant temperature:
A) P ∝ V
B) P × V = constant
C) P ∝ 1/V²
D) V/T = constant

The absolute zero temperature is:
A) –273°C
B) 0°C
C) 273°C
D) –100°C

The value of gas constant R in SI units is:
A) 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K
B) 8.314 J/mol·K
C) 62.36 L·torr/mol·K
D) 1.00 cal/mol·K

Hydrogen bonding exists among molecules of:
A) CH₄
B) NH₃
C) H₂S
D) PH₃

The density of water is maximum at:
A) 0°C
B) 2°C
C) 4°C
D) 100°C

The energy released when one mole of gaseous ions forms a solid crystal is called:
A) Ionization energy
B) Lattice energy
C) Bond energy
D) Electron affinity

The state of dynamic equilibrium is reached when:
A) Forward reaction stops
B) Both reactions stop
C) Rate of forward = rate of reverse reaction
D) Reactants completely convert to products

According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, increasing temperature of an exothermic
reaction will:
A) Increase product yield
B) Decrease product yield
C) No effect
D) Stop reaction

A buffer solution resists changes in:
A) Pressure
B) pH
C) Temperature
D) Volume

In Haber’s process, the catalyst used is:
A) Platinum
B) Iron with promoters
C) Copper
D) Nickel

The rate of reaction depends on:
A) Only temperature
B) Concentration and temperature
C) Catalyst only
D) Pressure only

The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called:
A) Ionization energy
B) Activation energy
C) Enthalpy
D) Free energy

A reaction that releases heat is known as:
A) Endothermic
B) Exothermic
C) Spontaneous
D) Catalytic

The first law of thermodynamics states that:
A) Energy is created from nothing
B) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
C) Matter is destroyed in reactions
D) Heat and work are unrelated

In electrochemical cells, oxidation occurs at:
A) Cathode
B) Anode
C) Both electrodes
D) Salt bridge

Standard electrode potential is measured against:
A) Zinc electrode
B) Hydrogen electrode
C) Copper electrode
D) Silver electrode

The geometry of methane (CH₄) according to VSEPR theory is:
A) Trigonal planar
B) Linear
C) Tetrahedral
D) Square planar

Sigma (σ) bonds are formed by:
A) Lateral overlap of orbitals
B) End-to-end overlap of orbitals
C) Magnetic attraction
D) Ionic attraction

Which of the following has a polar covalent bond?
A) Cl₂
B) H₂
C) HCl
D) O₂

The bond energy of a molecule indicates:
A) Color of bond
B) Strength of bond
C) Length of bond
D) Mass of atom

Ionization energy generally:
A) Increases down the group
B) Decreases across a period
C) Increases across a period
D) Is same for all elements

Reaction of sodium with water produces:
A) Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
B) Sodium chloride
C) Sodium oxide
D) Sodium peroxide

Transition elements show variable oxidation states because:
A) They have paired electrons only
B) They have partially filled d-orbitals
C) They are noble gases
D) Their shells are fully filled

The general formula of alkanes is:
A) CnH2n
B) CnH2n+2
C) CnH2n–2
D) CnHn

The type of bond present in ethene (C₂H₄) between carbon atoms is:
A) Single sigma
B) One sigma and one pi bond
C) Two sigma bonds
D) One pi only

Benzene shows:
A) Addition reaction
B) Electrophilic substitution
C) Free radical substitution
D) Elimination reaction

The IUPAC name of CH≡CH is:
A) Ethene
B) Ethyne
C) Propene
D) Butyne

Phenol differs from alcohol because:
A) It has –OH attached to aromatic ring
B) It reacts only with acids
C) It is odorless
D) It has no functional group

Aldehydes differ from ketones by the presence of:
A) C=O group
B) –CHO group
C) –OH group
D) –COOH group

Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form:
A) Aldehydes
B) Ethers
C) Esters
D) Ketones

Proteins are polymers of:
A) Fatty acids
B) Amino acids
C) Monosaccharides
D) Nucleotides

Enzymes act as:
A) Hormones
B) Biocatalysts
C) Nutrients
D) Substrates

Nylon is an example of:
A) Addition polymer
B) Condensation polymer
C) Natural polymer
D) Copolymer only

PVC is formed by polymerization of:
A) Ethene
B) Vinyl chloride
C) Propene
D) Styrene

Synthetic dyes are mainly used in:
A) Metallurgy
B) Textile industry
C) Fuel industry
D) Ceramics

The monomer of Teflon is:
A) Ethene
B) Tetrafluoroethene
C) Styrene
D) Acrylonitrile

The branch of chemistry that deals with carbon compounds is called:
A) Inorganic chemistry
B) Organic chemistry
C) Physical chemistry
D) Analytical chemistry

The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is:
A) Maximum
B) Zero
C) Minimum
D) One

The vector product of two parallel vectors is:
A) Zero
B) Maximum
C) Minimum
D) Negative

The slope of a displacement–time graph gives:
A) Acceleration
B) Velocity
C) Speed²
D) Displacement

Acceleration is uniform when:
A) Velocity increases at constant rate
B) Velocity remains constant
C) Displacement decreases
D) Direction changes randomly

In projectile motion, horizontal velocity remains constant because:
A) Gravity acts upward
B) No horizontal force acts
C) Air resistance increases
D) Vertical acceleration affects it

The maximum range of a projectile is obtained at an angle of:
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°

Newton’s second law relates force to:
A) Momentum
B) Impulse
C) Change in velocity
D) Mass only

. During collision, momentum is always:
A) Lost
B) Created
C) Conserved
D) Increased

In perfectly elastic collisions, kinetic energy is:
A) Lost completely
B) Partly lost
C) Conserved
D) Doubled

Work is done only when:
A) Force acts without motion
B) Displacement occurs
C) Velocity is zero
D) Energy is conserved

The unit of power is:
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Newton
D) Erg

The rotational analog of linear displacement is:
A) Angular displacement
B) Torque
C) Angular momentum
D) Moment of inertia

The SI unit of angular velocity is:
A) Radian
B) Radian s⁻¹
C) Degree
D) Joule

Relation between linear and angular velocity is:
A) v=rωv = rωv=rω
B) v=ω/rv = ω/rv=ω/r
C) ω=vrω = vrω=vr
D) v=ω2rv = ω^2rv=ω2r

Bernoulli’s principle is based on:
A) Conservation of momentum
B) Conservation of mass
C) Conservation of energy
D) Conservation of pressure

According to the equation of continuity, A1V1=A2V2A_1V_1 = A_2V_2A1V1=A2V2
represents:
A) Conservation of force
B) Conservation of energy
C) Conservation of mass
D) Conservation of volume

Waves that require a medium for propagation are:
A) Light waves
B) Sound waves
C) Gamma rays
D) X-rays

The speed of a wave is given by:
A) v=fλv = fλv=fλ
B) v=f/λv = f/λv=f/λ
C) v=λ/fv = λ/fv=λ/f
D) v=λ2fv = λ^2fv=λ2f

The distance between two consecutive crests is:
A) Frequency
B) Amplitude
C) Wavelength
D) Period

Laplace corrected Newton’s formula for sound speed by considering:
A) Isothermal process
B) Adiabatic process
C) Constant pressure process
D) Isometric process

Stationary waves are formed by:
A) One traveling wave
B) Two waves moving in opposite directions
C) Random vibrations
D) Reflection from walls only

The time period of a simple pendulum depends on:
A) Mass of bob
B) Amplitude
C) Length of pendulum
D) Density of air

According to the first law of thermodynamics:
A) ΔU = Q + W
B) ΔU = Q – W
C) Q = ΔU – W
D) W = ΔU + Q

Relation between Cp and Cv for an ideal gas is:
A) Cp – Cv = R
B) Cp = Cv
C) Cp + Cv = R
D) Cp = 2Cv

Coulomb’s law states that electrostatic force is:
A) Inversely proportional to distance
B) Inversely proportional to square of distance
C) Directly proportional to distance
D) Independent of distance

The unit of electric field intensity is:
A) N/C
B) J/C
C) Wb/m²
D) C²/N·m²

Electric potential at a point is defined as:
A) Work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity
B) Energy lost by a charge
C) Rate of charge flow
D) Force per unit area

Ohm’s Law states that:
A) Current is directly proportional to resistance
B) Voltage is inversely proportional to current
C) Current is directly proportional to voltage at constant temperature
D) Resistance decreases with voltage

The unit of resistivity is:
A) Ω·m
B) Ω/m
C) Ω·m²
D) m/Ω

Maximum power transfer occurs when:
A) Load resistance = source resistance
B) Load resistance > source resistance
C) Load resistance < source resistance
D) Source resistance = 0

The path of a charged particle entering perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field is:
A) Straight line
B) Circle
C) Ellipse
D) Parabola

According to Faraday’s law, the induced emf is proportional to:
A) Current in coil
B) Magnetic flux change rate
C) Magnetic field intensity
D) Resistance of coil

Lenz’s law is based on:
A) Conservation of charge
B) Conservation of energy
C) Conservation of mass
D) Conservation of momentum

The device used to change AC voltage levels is:
A) Rectifier
B) Transformer
C) Inductor
D) Resistor

The half-life of a radioactive element is the time in which:
A) Activity becomes zero
B) Half atoms decay
C) Half atoms remain undecayed
D) Both B and C

The medical imaging technique using gamma rays is:
A) X-ray radiography
B) MRI
C) PET scan
D) Ultrasound

Choose the correct form of the verb:
Neither of the boys ___ done his homework.
A) have
B) has
C) are
D) were

Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
A) “Its a beautiful day”, said Ali.
B) “It’s a beautiful day”, said Ali.
C) “Its a beautiful day.” said Ali.
D) Its a “beautiful day,” said Ali.

Choose the option with the correct indirect speech:
He said, “I am reading a book.”
A) He said that he is reading a book.
B) He said that he was reading a book.
C) He said he reads a book.
D) He said he was read a book.

 Identify the sentence with a gerund phrase.
A) To swim in the sea is exciting.
B) Swimming in the sea is exciting.
C) Swim in the sea is exciting.
D) Swam in the sea is exciting.

 Select the correct synonym for “Apprehend” in context:
“The poet uses imagery to apprehend the beauty of nature.”
A) Capture
B) Fear
C) Arrest
D) Forget

“The teacher admired Sana’s dedication. Despite failures, she persisted with her work, proving
that resilience is more valuable than talent.”
What is the main idea of this passage?
A) Sana was the most talented student.
B) Hard work and persistence are more valuable than natural talent.
C) Teachers always praise hardworking students.
D) Talent ensures success.

 Choose the correct preposition:
He has been waiting ___ you since morning.
A) on
B) at
C) for
D) from

 Select the correct sentence inversion:
A) Rarely we see such courage.
B) Rarely do we see such courage.
C) Rarely does we see such courage.
D) Rarely did we sees such courage.

 Choose the sentence with correct pronoun-antecedent agreement:
A) Everyone must do their homework.
B) Every student must do his or her homework.
C) All student must do his homework.
D) Each must do their homeworks.

 If all roses are flowers and some flowers fade quickly, which of the following must be true?
A) All roses fade quickly.
B) Some roses fade quickly.
C) Some flowers are roses.
D) All flowers are roses.

Find the next term in the series:
A, C, F, J, O, ___
A) T
B) U
C) V
D) W

Statement: “All athletes are disciplined. Some disciplined people are teachers.”
Conclusion:
1. Some athletes are teachers.
2. Some teachers are disciplined.
Choose the correct option:
A) Only 1 follows
B) Only 2 follows
C) Both follow
D) None follows

Identify the cause-effect relationship:
Statement I: “Heavy rainfall led to flooding in the city.”
Statement II: “Several roads were blocked.”
A) I is the cause; II is the effect.
B) II is the cause; I is the effect.
C) Both are independent.
D) Both are effects of a third cause.

Choose the correct course of action:
Statement: “There is a rise in cybercrime among teenagers.”
A) Ban all social media.
B) Impose heavy fines on parents.
C) Launch awareness programs about online safety.
D) Ignore the issue.

If “P + Q” means “P is the mother of Q” and “P – Q” means “P is the brother of Q,” then
what does “A – B + C” mean?
A) A is the uncle of C
B) A is the father of C
C) A is the brother of C
D) A is the cousin of C

Critical reasoning:
Statement: “Online education is less effective than traditional classrooms.”
Which argument weakens this statement the most?
A) Online classes are more affordable.
B) Students can interact face-to-face in traditional classrooms.
C) Many online students achieve excellent exam results.
D) Internet connectivity is sometimes poor.

 Letter Series:
Z, X, U, Q, L, ___
A) H
B) G
C) F
D) I

Logical Puzzle:
Four friends — Ali, Bilal, Hira, and Sana — are sitting in a row.
 Ali is not next to Hira.
 Bilal is on the extreme left.
 Sana is to the right of Ali.
Who sits between Ali and Sana?
A) Hira
B) Bilal
C) No one
D) Cannot be determined